I understand how slot machines use the RNG to determine what the reels will show, and that the advantage to the house lies in the fact that each spin result pays out less than what the true odds would be of hitting that spin result. My question concerns machines that allow you to play either 1, 2 or 3 coins (I don't know the name of the machine I was playing, but the top jackpot was paid out when all three reels showed a bag of popcorn.) Since no one knows how many coins will be played, how can just paying out less than true odds make the machine return an expected percentage? The best way I can explain my question is this: If a thousand people sat and played just 2 coins and never hit the jackpot reels, but then one person plays 3 coins and hits the jackpot on their first try -- getting the multiplier on their winnings -- doesn't make it likely the machine will pay out MORE than the expected percentage?
I guess what I'm really asking is should I play just 2 or coins? (I never play the 1-coin option as it won't pay the jackpot at all).
I guess what I'm really asking is should I play just 2 or coins? (I never play the 1-coin option as it won't pay the jackpot at all).
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